[Wien] Orbital potentials are only considered in atomic spheres?
    yxl@email.jlu.edu.cn 
    yxl at email.jlu.edu.cn
       
    Wed Sep  5 14:54:27 CEST 2007
    
    
  
Dear usrs,
  In 7.7 LAPWDM of userguide i read 'It calculates the average value of the operator X which behaves in the same way as the spin-orbit coupling operator: it must be nonzero only within the atomic spheres'. Can't i explain it like this: Orbit potentials are only considered in atomic spheres like spin-orbit coupling, so the results depend to some extent on the choice of atomic spheres radii.
                                             yours sincerely,
                                                hongxia
    
    
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