[Wien] Orbital potentials are only considered in atomic spheres?
yxl@email.jlu.edu.cn
yxl at email.jlu.edu.cn
Wed Sep 5 14:54:27 CEST 2007
Dear usrs,
In 7.7 LAPWDM of userguide i read 'It calculates the average value of the operator X which behaves in the same way as the spin-orbit coupling operator: it must be nonzero only within the atomic spheres'. Can't i explain it like this: Orbit potentials are only considered in atomic spheres like spin-orbit coupling, so the results depend to some extent on the choice of atomic spheres radii.
yours sincerely,
hongxia
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