[Wien] Spin Magnetic susceptibility

[karima Physique]

Thank you very much Dr. Martin Pieper for your well explained reply.

2017-10-03 16:41 GMT+02:00 pieper <pieper at ifp.tuwien.ac.at>:

> My two cent on this:
>
> Spins of itinerant electrons or, more specifically, electrons in the
> immediate vicinity of the Fermi surface usually will dominate the magnetic
> field response at T=0 (Pauli susceptibilty) - if there is a Fermi surface,
> i.e. if you have a metal, and if you do not consider magnetic order.
>
> However, I would not jump to the conclusion that this is the 'only' spin
> contribution. Basically chi=M/H. The spin part of the magnetization M is
> the field (H) induced occupation difference between spin-up and -down
> channel. It occures because of the Zeeman interaction between electron spin
> and field. Wether or not the electrons are localized doesn't matter. An
> example might be the large spin susceptibility of antiferromagnetic
> insulators.
>
> Best regards,
>
> ---
> Dr. Martin Pieper
> Karl-Franzens University
> Institute of Physics
> Universitätsplatz 5
> <https://maps.google.com/?q=Universit%C3%A4tsplatz+5&entry=gmail&source=g>
> A-8010 Graz
> Austria
> Tel.: +43-(0)316-380-8564
>
>
> Am 02.10.2017 18:44, schrieb karima Physique:
>
>> Thank you very much and as you said, we are still waiting for a
>> confirmation from Prof. P. Blaha and Wien2k users.
>>
>> 2017-09-30 21:53 GMT+02:00 Yundi Quan <yquan at ucdavis.edu>:
>>
>> Hi,
>>>
>>> As I understand it, the susceptibility you obtain by shifting DOS is
>>> the Pauli susceptibility, i.e. itinerant electrons near the Fermi
>>> level. But I might be wrong.
>>>
>>> On Sat, Sep 30, 2017 at 8:40 AM, karima Physique
>>> <physique.karima at gmail.com> wrote:
>>>
>>> Dear Prof. P. Blaha and Wien2k user;
>>>>
>>>> Is the spin part of the magnetic susceptibility due to the
>>>> contribution of delocalized electrons only?
>>>>
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